es probable que nadie hable tan bien como....

[LouieB]

I was confused about this and asked a Spanish professor about the correct way to say this passage that we discussed a couple days ago.

he said as is written in the title (its probable that no-one speaks as well as.....)  is the correct way.

and not with the double negative.  no es probable que ninguno habla mejor....

so to those of you that didn't believe me  "vayanse al carajo!!!"

[Frank O]

... in response to es probable que nadie hable tan bien com..., posted by LouieB on Oct 7, 2002

I don't know being fluent in Tex MEx is all screwed up for me!!! But I can COMMUNICATE fluently in spanish whether it's "correct" or "proper".

[Georgina]

... in response to es probable que nadie hable tan bien com..., posted by LouieB on Oct 7, 2002

no es probable que ninguno habla mejor...

I think the expressed above is incorrect. I would say

Es probable que ninguno habla mejor...

[LouieB]

... in response to Re: es probable que nadie hable tan bien..., posted by Georgina on Oct 9, 2002

n/t

[Georgina]

... in response to I agree, and that was my point., posted by LouieB on Oct 9, 2002

I definetely never will say "no es probable que nadie o ninguno habla or hable Español" in this case.

I won't use double negative in this case because it would give the sentence a different meaning of what you really want to say.

I have heard Spanish native speakers using double negatives in cases as the mentioned aboved, but if they would really think a little of what they said or before they say it, they will reconsider not using double negatives in this kind of cases.

It is true in Spanish you can use double negatives in hundreds of cases, but there are exemptions too and this one is a good example.

[colman]

... in response to I agree, and that was my point., posted by LouieB on Oct 9, 2002

Double negatives is not incorrect in Castillian Spanish as they are in English.

[LouieB]

... in response to My original point is....., posted by colman on Oct 9, 2002

and my point was in that particular sentence, the use of two negatives changed the meaning to the exact opposite of what you wanted to say

[Tai]

... in response to Re: My original point is....., posted by LouieB on Oct 9, 2002

That would be the case if spoken in English, but double negatives do not have the same application/effect across the board in Spanish.

[LouieB]

... in response to Re: Re: And my point is....., posted by Tai on Oct 9, 2002

Maria no come nada.  and Maria no come.  mean the same thing.  

no creo que maria nunca come.  means I don't believe that Maria never eats.  It does not mean "I don't believe that Maria eats"

see the difference??

[Bueller]

... in response to yes, I know but in that instance it tota..., posted by LouieB on Oct 9, 2002

"No creo que maria nunca come" means "I don't think María ever eats". "Nunca" carries in some contexts the meaning "ever", usually in interrogatives, but also in the above sentence.

 The María Moliner diccionario de uso del español says:
Se emplea sin valor negativo en oraciones interrogativas o dubitativas, o dependientes de una negativa: '¿Has visto nunca (alguna vez) cosa igual? ¿Tú sabes si nunca nos volveremos a encontrar? No sé si he estado nunca en esta casa'.

[Tai]

... in response to yes, I know but in that instance it tota..., posted by LouieB on Oct 9, 2002

And believe me, I do not need an elementary spanish lesson.

Bottom line, I do not agree with you in this case.

We may as well just agree to disagree...because this is going nowhere.

Tai

[Tai]

... in response to Re: es probable que nadie hable tan bien..., posted by Georgina on Oct 9, 2002

[This message has been edited by Tai]

Well...

I'm sure that LouieB will appreciate the support. lol(just kidding Louie)

For me, the key words in your post were:

"I think" and "I would say"

(not to mention using "habla" versus hable, and "mejor")

As I've said, what "sounds" right is quite subjective.

Tai

[LouieB]

... in response to Re: Re: es probable que nadie hable tan ..., posted by Tai on Oct 9, 2002

she said,

no es probable que ninguno habla mejor   is incorrect

and she said the correct way to say it is "es probable que ninguno hable...."   just like I said

[Tai]

... in response to she does agree with me, posted by LouieB on Oct 9, 2002

Louie, Louie, Louie...

1)The professor who you reportedly asked about this "issue" supposedly agreed with you as well.

2)Colman agreed that the way I put it was in fact a correct way to say it...but you disregarded what he said because it wasn't in agreement with the way that YOU would say it.

3)Read Georgina's post again. She said habl-a, whereas you were arguing that habl-e was the "correct" usage if one is saying "Es probable". -Is she wrong on that? Or are you overlooking that tidbit and focusing solely on her deletion of the double negative that you are so uncomfortable with?

4)I used "mas que", she used "mejor", you used "tan bien como".

We can keep this going forever, but it will serve no purpose, aside from burning up disk space that could be better utilized elsewhere.

UNA VEZ MAS...what sounds correct, is quite subjective...(in this case)there is no "right" or "wrong" way to say it, just a matter of personal choice of expression.

Tai

ps - Can we go ahead bury this one now?

[LouieB]

... in response to Re: she does agree with me, posted by Tai on Oct 9, 2002

....but it is NOT probable that someone (anyone) speaks better than (as well as) a native speaker.  

now translate this one

....but it is NOT probable that NO-ONE (nobody) speaks better than (as well as) a native speaker